John Williams Sees The Onset Of Hyperinflation In As Little As 6 To 9 Months As Fed "Tap Dances On A Land Mine"

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Doomsday warnings of US apocalypse gain ground

In The News Today

Posted: Sep 13 2010     By: Jim Sinclair      Post Edited: September 13, 2010 at 7:08 pm
Filed under: In The News

Questions and Observations

Did the global financial meltdown come as a result of banks operating on too little capital or did the meltdown result in the evaporating of bank capital therein leaving the banking industry undercapitalized?
The airwaves would have you believe that OTC derivatives are innocent of causing any problems, but more so is the banking industry for operating on too little capital. What a crock.
How do you define a class one asset for a bank when the viability of the instrument defined as market value can be assigned by the bank with no relation to any market anywhere?
If you up value a legacy asset (broken OTC derivative) then it can no longer be a legacy asset. It might well be a class one asset based on the bank’s legal but arbitrary valuation.
Note the great news today on banking reserves. It possesses "discretion" and "country to country" consideration as well as taking the greater part of a generation to become mandatory.

Gonzalo Lira Proposes Open Debate With Mish On Topic Of XXflation